1. If alpha motor neuron 10 were stimulated electrically, which of the following would preventmuscle fiber D from contracting? Select all that apply. Removing extracellular Ca2+ from compartment BRemoving extracellular Ca2+ from compartment CRemoving extracellular Na+ from compartment BRemoving extracellular Na+ from compartment CRemoving acetylcholinesterase (AchE) from compartment CAdding Acetylcholine to compartment CBlocking muscarinic acetylcholine receptors in compartment C QUESTION 2 1 points Save Answer If stimulation of sensory receptor 1 leads to contraction of muscle fibers E and G, but relaxation of muscle fibers D and F, which two neurons must be inhibitory?2345678 QUESTION 3 1 points Save Answer If activation of sensory receptor 1 leads to reflex inhibition of muscle fibers D and F, then receptor 1must be (select the one most appropriate answer):A muscle spindle located in the same muscle as fibers E and GA Golgi tendon organ located in the same muscle as fibers E and GA muscle spindle located in the same muscle as fibers D and FA Golgi tendon organ located in the same muscle as fibers D and F QUESTION 4 1 points Save Answer A muscle increases its contractile force by recruiting more and more motor units. Maximum contractileforce of a muscle is therefore achieved when all motor units in that muscle have been recruited. Whichof the following describes the motor units which are recruited first? Large alpha motor neurons innervating slow-twitch muscle fibersSmall alpha motor neurons innervating slow-twitch muscle fibersLarge alpha motor neurons innervating fast-twitch muscle fibersSmall alpha motor neurons innervating fast-twitch muscle fibers01/04/2017
Take Test: CAL 4: Muscle – PHYS20008_2017_SM1
https://app.lms.unimelb.edu.au/webapps/assessment/take/launch.jsp?course_assessment_id=_227990_1&course_id=_326791_1&content_id=_5… 1/4 CAL Tasks CAL tasks Take Test: CAL 4: Muscle H Take Test: CAL 4: Muscle Test Information Description Click here to access the fourth CAL. While open you may access it as many times as you like, and there is no time limit. You may 'save' your answers as you go but you may only 'Submit' once. You must Submit your attempt by the due date to receive credit. Instructions Multiple Attempts Not allowed. This test can only be taken once. Force Completion This test can be saved and resumed later, unless it is a timed test. Once you start a timed test, the timer continues even if you leave the test and/or the LMS. Save All Answers Save and Submit Use the diagram below to answer questions 13. A , B , and C represent isolated compartments. DG represent muscle fibers. 210 represent neurons. 5, 7, 9, and 10 are alpha motor neurons. 1 is a receptor. QUESTION 1 1 points Saved ? Question Completion Status: My Home Subjects Communities Manage Content James Beresford
https://www.coursehero.com/tutors-problems/Business/10437622 10437622 3P in Practise #2 Pg. 353 and Ques 6 Pg. 3P in Practise #2 Pg. 353 and Ques 6 Pg. 356 - Business Communication In Person, In Print, Online - Newman and Ober - 8th edWriting an Executive Summaryfor a PowerPoint ReportPurposeImagine that you work for a company that tests and rates consumer products, and youare asked to create a report using presentation slides (such as PowerPoint) about thebest sporty cars/roadsters for fuel effi ciency. Before writing the entire report, you decideto write a one-page executive summary for your manager’s review.BESTRank Make & Model Overall City Highwaympg mpg mpgSPORTY CARS/ROADSTERS Overall mpg = 27 or higher(tested with manual transmission)1 Mini Cooper (base) 33 24 412 Nissan Sentra SE-R Spec V 30 23 393 Mini Cooper S (hatchback) 30 22 384 Mini Cooper S (convertible) 30 22 375 Lotus Elise 29 24 336 Mazda MX-5 Miata Grand Touring 28 20 357 Kia Forte Koup SX 27 19 378 Volkswagen GTI 27 19 369 Honda Civic Si 27 19 35Process1. List several main points from the sporty cars/roadsters table that you will include inyour executive summary.2. How will you organize these points?3. Write a talking heading for each of your main points.4. What bulleted text will you include under each main point?ProductPrepare your executive summary in presentation slide format for your instructor’s review.6. Write an introduction for a report.T&C, a consumer products company, has long been known for its product developmentprowess. You were recently hired by the company’s public affairs department tomanage the development of a new and unusual product: a book about the history ofT&C’s product development. The company plans to use this book for new employeetraining. You believe that making the book available to a wider audience would enhanceT&C’s reputation without giving away any of its secrets. You also know that you will needprofessional help to research the book—based on information in your archives and oninterviews with current and former employees—and to write it.Doing a bit of research, you learn that you can choose among four companies specializingin corporate histories: Winthrop Group in Cambridge, Massachusetts; HistoryAssociates in Rockville, Maryland; History Factory in Chantilly, Virginia; and BusinessHistory Group in Columbia, Maryland. Before your boss will approve this expensive project,you need to prepare a brief report showing the services offered by each company,some clients served by each, and your recommendations for which company seems thebest fi t given T&C’s requirements.How will you conduct more research? What do you need to know to make a recommendation?What is the purpose of your report? Describe your audience. What data willyou include in the report? Using your knowledge of report writing, draft an introductionto this report.
https://www.coursehero.com/tutors-problems/Business/10437624 10437624 09. Appendices and milestones Here, you may want to include additional information, such as a SWOT (Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats) 09. Appendices and milestones Here, you may want to include additional information, such as a SWOT (Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats) analysis to look at positive and negative influences on your business, or even a business action plan, outlining key objectives with deadlines.
https://www.coursehero.com/tutors-problems/Business/10437626 10437626 A double-stranded fragment of viral DNA, one of whose strands is shown below, encodes two polypeptides called vir-1 and vir-2. A double-stranded fragment of viral DNA, one of whose strands is shown below, encodes two polypeptides calledvir-1 and vir-2. Adding this double stranded DNA fragment to an in vitro transcription and translation systemyields peptides of 10 residues (vir-1) and 5 residues (vir-2).5?-AGATCGGATGCTCAACTATATGTGATTAACAGAGCCTGCGGCAT AAA CT-3?(a) What are the nucleotide sequences of the open reading frames (start to stop codons, inclusively) within themRNA transcripts coding for vir-1 and vir-2? Write them out and designate the 5? and 3?-ends.(b) What is the amino acid sequence of each polypeptide? Use one letter symbols to denote amino acids.(c) In a mutant viral strain, the T at position 23 (counting from the left) on the DNA strand shown above has beenreplaced with G. Determine the amino acid sequences of the two peptides encoded by the mutant virus.(d) What would be the sequences of the oligonucleotide primers (each 10 bp in length) required to amplify bypolymerase chain reaction the DNA open reading frame (start to stop codons, inclusively) corresponding tothe vir-1 polypeptide? Be sure to designate the 5? and 3? ends of the primers. HINT: you only want the vir-1open reading frame amplified, not any flanking sequence.(e) Draw the patterns of bands you would expect to see on the DNA sequencing gel below if you annealed the 10residue primer 5?-CATATAGTTG-3? to the above single-stranded wild-type DNA template and carried out adideoxy sequencing experiment (Sanger sequencing). The primer contains a radioactive label at its 5?-end
https://www.coursehero.com/tutors-problems/Business/10437634 10437634 Hi Tutors Please show the working clearly in the excel sheet. Thanks! Hi TutorsPlease show the working clearly in the excel sheet.Thanks!Regards, Lynn
https://www.coursehero.com/tutors-problems/Business/10437646 10437646 Assignment: Research solar companies and their returns Guidelines 1. List/Quantify ROIC for pure play solar companies in different geographies... Assignment: Research solar companies and their returns Guidelines1. List/Quantify ROIC for pure play solar companies in different geographies (include references/links)2. List at least 10 different companies and write a short paragraph summary as to what makes them successful on their return on investment (include references/links)3. Include any other important/key valuation metrics (include references/links). As much as possible, try to maintain consistency in company analysis.
https://www.coursehero.com/tutors-problems/Business/10437648 10437648 Suppose a firm is considering whether or not to buy a piece of machinery which it will use over the next four years. •Suppose a firm is considering whether or not to buy a piece of machinery which it will use over the next four years.•The machine will cost £1,000 to purchase this year and will give rise to £200, £300, £300 and £400 in maintenance expenses in years 1, 2, 3 and 4 respectively.•The machine will generate revenues of £600, £800, £800 and £800 in years 1, 2, 3 and 4 respectively.•The scrap value of the machine will be £200 at the end of the year 4.•The required rate of return is 10%•Calculate the Net Present Value of this machine to the firm.•Should the firm purchase the machine based on this NPV?
https://www.coursehero.com/tutors-problems/Business/10437650 10437650 In the last module, you took a deeper look into different types of analytic study designs. In this module, you will learn about case-control, and... Hi. I would like some assistance with the following area of study. thank you.In the last module, you took a deeper look into different types of analytic study designs. In this module, you will learn about case-control, and cohort studies, and the advantages and disadvantages of each. Both are observational, and the unit of study is the individual, but they differ greatly in application. You will also learn about measures of associations used in these study designs, and how to interpret the study findings. Lastly, you will be given a brief overview of potential threats to study designs. Cohort Studies Similar to the cross sectional study design you learned about in the last module, cohort studies are observational, and the unit of study is the individual. However, unlike a cross sectional study whereby exposure and disease are captured and classified at one point in time (a “snap shot”), cohort studies begin with a defined population (or a subset with common characteristics) who are classified by exposure status and followed over time to see who develops the disease of interest: Let’s portray this with a 2x2 table. With a cohort study, you would begin knowing the value in the total column, bolded and italicized below. Structure of a Cohort Study 2x2 Outcome status - Present Outcome status -Absent Total Exposure status - Present A B A+B Exposure status - Absent C D C+D Total A+C B+D A+B+C+D Cohort studies can be defined in terms of time: prospective or retrospective . A prospective cohort study begins at the current date and follows individuals into the future to determine if they develop the disease of interest. A retrospective cohort begins at the current date, and looks historically to determine if persons developed the disease anytime between the study start time, and current day. The key component of this study design is that the study begins with the classification of exposure. This differs from the cross sectional study design in which the study begins with the classification of exposure and disease at the same time. Perhaps you can glimpse the inherent advantages of this design in terms of causal criteria (hint- temporality)?
https://www.coursehero.com/tutors-problems/Business/10437654 10437654 Hi All accounting tutors, Please assist me, as my statements aren't balancing so I don't know if I have placed some things in the wrong Financial Hi All accounting tutors,Please assist me, as my statements aren't balancing so I don't know if I have placed some things in the wrong Financial statements to get to the 'asset' and 'property , plant and equipment note' wrong?
https://www.coursehero.com/tutors-problems/Business/10437656 10437656 please answer the question shows in the picture as soon as possible. please answer the question shows in the picture as soon as possible.
https://www.coursehero.com/tutors-problems/Business/10437658 10437658 Exam 3 Q1. Adventure Outfitter Corp. can sell common stock for $27 per share and its investors require a 17% return. Exam 3 Q1. Adventure Outfitter Corp. can sell common stock for $27 per share and its investors require a 17% return. However, the administrative or flotation costs associated with selling the stock amount to $2.70 per share. What is the cost of capital for Adventure Outfitter if the corporation raises money by selling common stock? a. 27.00% b. 18.89% c. 18.33% d. 17.00% Q2. WineCellars Inc. currently has a weighted average cost of capital of 12%. WineCellars has been growing rapidly over the past several years, selling common stock in each year to finance its growth. However, due to difficult economic times this year, WineCellars decides to cut its dividend and increase its retained earnings so that the common equity portion of its capital structure will include only retained earnings and no new common stock will be sold. WineCellars weighted average cost of capital this year should be a. zero, since no new stock will be sold. b. less than 12%. c. equal to 12%. d. greater than 12%. Q3. JPR Company is financed 75 percent by equity and 25 percent by debt. If the firm expects to earn $30 million in net income next year and retain 40% of it, how large can the capital budget be before common stock must be sold? a. $7.5 million b. $12.0 million c. $15.5 million d. $16.0 million Q4. Why should firms that own and operate multiple businesses that have different risk characteristics use business-specific, or divisional costs of capital? a. Not all divisions have equal risk and the firm might accept projects whose returns are higher than are deemed appropriate. b. Not all business divisions have equal risk and the firm will likely become less risky in the future. c. Not all lines of business have equal risk and it is likely that the firm will accept projects whose returns are unacceptably low in relation to the risk involved. d. Use of the same weighted average cost of capital for all divisions may result in too much money being allocated to the least risky division. Q5. All else equal, an increase in beta results in a. an increase in the cost of retained earnings. b. an increase in the cost of newly issued common stock . c. an increase in the after-tax cost of debt. d. an increase in the cost of common equity, whether or not the funds come from retained earnings or newly issued common stock. Q6. A firm's cost of capital is influenced by a. the current ratio. b. par value of common stock. c. capital structure. d. net income. Q7. GHJ Inc. is investing in a major capital budgeting project that will require the expenditure of $16 million. The money will be raised by issuing $2 million of bonds, $4 million of preferred stock, and $10 million of new common stock. The company estimates is after-tax cost of debt to be 7%, its cost of preferred stock to be 9%, the cost of retained earnings to be 14%, and the cost of new common stock to be 17%. What is the weighted average cost of capital for this project? a. 12.20% b. 13.12% c. 13.75% d. 14.23% Q8. Jiffy Co. expects to pay a dividend of $3.00 per share in one year. The current price of Jiffy common stock is $60 per share. Flotation costs are $3.00 per share when Jiffy issues new stock. What is the cost of internal common equity (retained earnings) if the long-term growth in dividends is projected to be 8 percent indefinitely? a. 13 percent b. 14 percent c. 15 percent d. 16 percent Q9. Project Alpha has an internal rate of return (IRR) of 15 percent. Project Beta has an IRR of 14 percent. Both projects have a required return of 12 percent. Which of the following statements is MOST correct? a. Both projects have a positive net present value (NPV). b. Project Alpha must have a higher NPV than Project Beta. c. If the required return were less than 12 percent, Project Beta would have a higher IRR than Project Alpha. d. Project Beta has a higher profitability index than Project Alpha. Q10. Lithium, Inc. is considering two mutually exclusive projects, A and B. Project A costs $95,000 and is expected to generate $65,000 in year one and $75,000 in year two. Project B costs $120,000 and is expected to generate $64,000 in year one, $67,000 in year two, $56,000 in year three, and $45,000 in year four. Lithium, Inc.'s required rate of return for these projects is 10%. Which project would you recommend using the replacement chain method to evaluate the projects with different lives? a. Project B because its NPV is higher than Project A's replacement chain NPV of $47,623 b. Project A because its replacement chain NPV is $76,652, which exceeds the NPV for Project B c. Project A because its replacement chain NPV is $45,642, which is less than the NPV for Project B d. Both projects will be valued the same since they are now both four year projects. Q11. Lithium, Inc. is considering two mutually exclusive projects, A and B. Project A costs $95,000 and is expected to generate $65,000 in year one and $75,000 in year two. Project B costs $120,000 and is expected to generate $64,000 in year one, $67,000 in year two, $56,000 in year three, and $45,000 in year four. Lithium, Inc.'s required rate of return for these projects is 10%. The profitability index for Project A is a. 1.27. b. 1.22. c. 1.17. d. 1.12. Q12. Project LMK requires an initial outlay of $500,000 and has a profitability index of 1.4. The project is expected to generate equal annual cash flows over the next ten years. The required return for this project is 16%. What is project LMK's internal rate of return? a. 19.88% b. 22.69% c. 24.78% d. 26.12% Q13. Your company is considering an investment in one of two mutually exclusive projects. Project one involves a labor intensive production process. Initial outlay for Project 1 is $1,495 with expected after tax cash flows of $500 per year in years 1-5. Project two involves a capital intensive process, requiring an initial outlay of $6,704. After tax cash flows for Project 2 are expected to be $2,000 per year for years 1-5. Your firm's discount rate is 10%. If your company is not subject to capital rationing, which project(s) should you take on? a. Project 1 b. Project 2 c. Projects 1 and 2 d. Neither project is acceptable. Q14. For the net present value (NPV) criteria, a project is acceptable if NPV is ________, while for the profitability index a project is acceptable if PI is ________. a. greater than zero; greater than the required return b. greater than or equal to zero; greater than zero c. greater than one; greater than or equal to one d. greater than or equal to zero; greater than or equal to one Q15. Two projects that have the same cost and the same expected cash flows will have the same net present value. a. True b. False Q16. The capital budgeting decision-making process involves measuring the incremental cash flows of an investment proposal and evaluating the attractiveness of these cash flows relative to the project's cost. a. True b. False Q17. J.B. Enterprises purchased a new molding machine for $85,000. The company paid $8,000 for shipping and another $7,000 to get the machine integrated with the company's existing assets. J.B. must maintain a supply of special lubricating oil just in case the machine breaks down. The company purchased a supply of oil for $4,000. The machine is to be depreciated on a straight-line basis over its expected useful life of 8 years. Which of the following statements concerning the change in working capital is most accurate? a. The $4,000 paid for oil is added to the initial outlay, offset by the tax savings $1600. b. The $4,000 may be expensed each year over the life of the project as part of the incremental free cash flows. c. The $4,000 is added to the initial outlay and recaptured during the terminal year, hence having no impact on the projects NPV or IRR. d. Even if the $4,000 is fully recovered at the end of the project, the project's NPV and IRR will be lower if the change in working capital is included in the analysis. Q18. A new project is expected to generate $800,000 in revenues, $250,000 in cash operating expenses, and depreciation expense of $150,000 in each year of its 10-year life. The corporation's tax rate is 35%. The project will require an increase in net working capital of $85,000 in year one and a decrease in net working capital of $75,000 in year ten. What is the free cash flow from the project in year one? a. $298,000 b. $375,000 c. $380,000 d. $410,000 Q19. A local restaurant owner is considering expanding into another rural area. The expansion project will be financed through a line of credit with City Bank. The administrative costs of obtaining the line of credit are $500, and the interest payments are expected to be $1,000 per month. The new restaurant will occupy an existing building that can be rented for $2,500 per month. The incremental cash flows for the new restaurant include a. $500 administrative costs, $1,000 per month interest payments, $2,500 per month rent. b. $500 administrative costs, $2,500 per month rent. c. $1,000 per month interest payments, $2,500 per month rent. d. $2,500 per month rent. Q20. If depreciation expense in year one of a project increases for a highly profitable company a. net income decreases and incremental free cash flow decreases. b. net income increases and incremental free cash flow increases. c. the book value of the depreciating asset increases at the end of year one. d. net income decreases and incremental free cash flow increases. Q21. An asset with an original cost of $100,000 and a current book value of $20,000 is sold for $50,000 as part of a capital budgeting project. The company has a tax rate of 30%. This transaction will have what impact on the project's initial outlay? a. reduce it by $20,000 b. reduce it by $50,000 c. reduce it by $6,000 d. reduce it by $15,000 Q22. Tillamook Farms invests in a new kind of frozen dessert called polar cream that becomes very popular. So many new customers come to the store that the sales of existing ice cream products are increased. The extra sales revenue a. should not be counted as incremental revenue for the polar cream project because the sales come from existing products. b. are synergistic effects that should be counted as incremental revenues for the polar cream project. c. are cannibalized sales that should be excluded from the analysis. d. should be included in the analysis, but not the cost of the ice cream that is sold as that is a recurring expense. Q23. You are analyzing the purchase of new equipment. Since you are not an expert on this type of equipment, you hire a consulting firm to make recommendations. The consultant charged you $1,500 and recommended the purchase of the latest model from ACME Corp. of America. The equipment costs $80,000, and it will cost another $10,000 to modify it for special use by your firm. The equipment will be depreciated on a straight-line basis over six years with no salvage value. You expect the equipment will be sold after three years for $28,000. Use of the equipment will require an increase in your company's net working capital of $4,000, but this $4,000 will be recovered at the end of year three. The use of the equipment will have no effect on revenues, but it is expected to save the firm $50,000 per year in before-tax operating costs. Your company's marginal tax rate is 35%. What is the terminal cash flow for this project? a. $17,000 b. $24,500 c. $33,950 d. $37,950 Q24. Which of the following should be excluded in an analysis of a new project's cash flows? a. additional investment in fixed assets b. additional investment in accounts receivable c. additional investment in inventory d. additional interest expenses on debt financing Q25. Financial leverage could mean financing some of a firm's assets with a. preferred stock. b. retained earnings. c. private equity capital. d. sales revenues. Q26. The "threat hypothesis" a. reduces management's tendency to spend freely. b. encourages management to use debt to further their own interests. c. increases the agency problem. d. increases agency monitoring costs. Q27. Corporations utilize external financing either because they do not have sufficient earnings to reinvest or they want to rebalance their capital structures. a. True b. False Q28. Which of the following transactions will lower a company's financial leverage? a. A mortgage loan is obtained and the proceeds are used to pay off existing short-term debt. b. Preferred stock is sold and the proceeds are used to pay off existing short-term debt. c. Common stock is sold and the proceeds are used to pay off existing short-term debt. d. Short-term debt is obtained to get the company through a period of negative net income and cash flow. Q29. Kohler Manufacturing typically achieves one of three production levels in any given year: 8 million pounds of steel, 10 million pounds of steel, or 16 million pounds of steel. In tracking some of its costs, Kohler's controller discovered one cost that was $10 per pound at a production level of 8 million pounds, $8 per pound at a production level of 10 million pounds, and $5 per pound at a production level of 16 million pounds. This is an example of a a. variable cost. b. fixed cost. c. semivariable cost. d. semifixed cost. Q30. Operating leverage refers to a. financing a portion of the firm's assets with securities bearing a fixed rate of return. b. the additional chance of insolvency borne by the common shareholder. c. the incurrence of fixed operating costs in the firm's income stream. d. a high degree of variable costs of production. Q31. Which of the following statements about combined (operating & financial) leverage is true? a. If a firm employs both operating and financial leverage, any percent change in sales will produce a larger percent change in earnings per share. b. A firm that is in a capital-intensive industry should use a higher level of financial leverage than a firm that employs low levels of operating leverage. c. Usage of both operating and financial leverage reduces a firm's risk. d. High operating leverage and high financial leverage offset one another, meaning that if sales increase by 10%, then EPS will also increase by 10%. Q32. QuadCity Manufacturing, Inc. reported the following items: Sales = $6,000,000; Variable Costs of Production = $1,500,000; Variable Selling and Administrative Expenses = $550,000; Fixed Costs = $1,350,000; EBIT = $2,600,000; and the Marginal Tax Rate %. QuadCity's break-even point in sales dollars is a. $2,050,633. b. $2,197,500. c. $2,438,750. d. $2,785,000. Q33. According to the clientele effect a. companies should have dividend payout ratios of either 100% or 0%. b. companies should avoid making capricious changes in their dividend policies. c. companies should change their dividend policies to please their target group of investors. d. even if capital markets are perfect, dividend policy still matters. Q34. The residual dividend theory suggests that dividends will only be paid a. if the tax rate on capital gains is higher than the tax rate on dividends. b. if the corporation has more positive NPV projects than it can fund. c. if interest rates available to shareholders are higher than the required return on the company's stock. d. if current retained earnings exceed the equity portion of the firm's capital budget. Q35. Assume that a firm has a steady record of paying high dividends for years. A new management team decided to cut the current year's dividend in half without disclosing why. The market value of the stock fell 35% on the day the dividend cut was announced. Which of the following would best explain the stock market's reaction to the announcement? a. empirical theory b. dividend irrelevance theory c. residual dividend theory d. information effect Q36. AFB, Inc.'s dividend policy is to maintain a constant payout ratio. This year AFB, Inc. paid out a total of $2 million in dividends. Next year, AFB, Inc.'s sales and earnings per share are expected to increase. Dividend payments are expected to a. remain at $2 million. b. increase above $2 million. c. decrease below $2 million. d. increase above $2 million only if the company issues additional shares of common stock. Q37. A firm's dividend payout ratio is a. the ratio of dividends to sales. b. the ratio of dividends to market equity. c. the ratio of dividends to earnings. d. the ratio of dividends to book equity. Q38. Grainery Distillers, Inc. is experiencing high demand for its products and high growth rates. The company just reported earnings per share of $5 for the most recent year and has many positive NPV projects to fund. One vice president wants to pay a dividend of $5 per share, arguing that this will maximize shareholder value. You argue that a much smaller dividend will maximize value. Your argument may be based on a. the bird-in-the-hand theory. b. the residual dividend theory. c. the information effect. d. the very high agency costs of the corporation. Q39. A firm that maintains a "stable dollar dividend per share" will generally not increase the dividend unless a. a stock split occurs. b. the firm merges with another profitable firm. c. the firm is sure that a higher dividend level can be maintained. d. the P/E ratio has increased steadily over the past 5 years. Q40. Concentric Corporation has 10 million shares of stock outstanding. Concentric's after-tax profits are $140 million and the corporation's stock is selling at a price-earnings multiple of 18, for a stock price of $252 per share. Concentric's management issues a 40% stock dividend. What is the effect on an investor who owns 100 shares of Concentric before the dividend if Concentric's price-earnings multiple remains the same after the dividend is paid? a. The investor will own 140 shares worth $25,200. b. The investor will own 140 shares worth $35,280. c. The investor will own 100 shares worth $25,200. d. The investor will own 100 shares worth $35,280.