Solution 03 m II K K in COCO mH K5 Kb 3 in mH Kb Cn Cn Kb 8 xx VVVVVV 8 mH Kb mH K AAA AA to 0 K I
Solution m II K K in COCO mH K Kb in mH Kb Cn Cn Kb xx VVVVVV mH Kb mH K
Solution m II K K in COCO mH K Kb in mH Kb Cn Cn Kb
in COCO mH K Kb in mH Kb Cn Cn Kb xx VVVVVV mH Kb mH K AAA AA to K I
Solution m II K K in COCO mH K Kb in mH Kb Cn
Cn Kb xx VVVVVV mH Kb mH K AAA AA to K I
Solution m II K K in COCO mH K Kb in
Solution m II K K
(Solution) 03 m‘ II K“ K“ | (in COCO mH K5 Kb ‘3'“ | (in mH Kb Cn Cn+ Kb 8— xx VVVVVV 8— mH Kb mH K“ AAA/AA to +0: K“ I ...

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This question was created from ch36 https://www.coursehero.com/file/8822526/ch36/?focusQaId=10392625 For this question, I used the 1/p + 1/q = 1/f. I got #4 as my answer but I'm not sure if that is right. Since f is on the other side of the plane, does that mean I should make it negative when solving this problem? but if that's the case, then should I also make q negative? Or am I overthinking it? Can you please help me clear this up?